Think about this:
When one uses the expression *my old man*...
They are usually referencing their father.
Okay.
But when one uses the expression *my old lady*...
That is an idiomatic referencing of their wife.
So why the generational discrepancy?
Is the conflation of wives and mothers Oedipal or something?
Or is it a patriarchal, chauvinistic statement that in some way, wives age faster than husbands - as in dog-years or something?
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